DP Math AA · HL · Calculus

AHL 5.19—Maclaurin series

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  1. Question 1

    Which of the following correctly states the general coefficient of xn in the Maclaurin series of a function f(x)?
    No clue? Show me the answer
    Correct answerCorrect!Incorrect
    Bn!f(n)(0)​

    Step-by-step walkthrough

    Choose a solution method

    Method #1Approach 1

    Step 1: Recall the Maclaurin series definition

    The Maclaurin series is defined as f(x)=∑n=0∞​an​xn where the coefficients an​ are determined by matching derivatives at x=0.

    Step 2: Derive the coefficient formula

    Differentiating P(x)=a0​+a1​x+a2​x2+⋯ exactly n times and setting x=0 gives P(n)(0)=n!⋅an​. Therefore an​=n!f(n)(0)​.

    Step 3: Understand why $n!$ appears

    The nth derivative of xn is n! (a constant), so dividing by n! correctly isolates the coefficient an​. Without dividing by n!, the polynomial would overshoot every derivative value by a factor of n!.

    Step 4: Choose the correct answer

    The coefficient of xn is n!f(n)(0)​, confirming the second option.

    Method #2Approach 2

    Step 1: Understand what is being asked

    We need to identify the correct formula for the nth coefficient in a Maclaurin series. This comes directly from the definition f(x)=∑n=0∞​n!f(n)(0)​xn.

    Step 2: Eliminate $f^{(n)}(0)$

    The option f(n)(0) omits the crucial n! denominator. If the coefficient were simply f(n)(0), then matching P(n)(0) to f(n)(0) would be off by a factor of n! due to the repeated differentiation of xn. This is incorrect.

    Step 3: Eliminate $\dfrac{f^{(n)}(0)}{(n-1)!}$

    The option (n−1)!f(n)(0)​ uses (n−1)! instead of n!. The correct divisor is n! because the nth derivative of xn is n!, not (n−1)!. This option is off by a factor of n.

    Step 4: Eliminate $n! \cdot f^{(n)}(0)$

    Multiplying by n! instead of dividing by it inverts the relationship completely. This would make coefficients grow extremely rapidly and the series would diverge for even small x.

    Step 5: Select the correct answer

    The only correct formula is n!f(n)(0)​, which properly accounts for the n! arising from repeated differentiation.

  2. Question 2

    What is the coefficient of x3 in the Maclaurin series of f(x)=e2x?
    No clue? Show me the answer
    Correct answerCorrect!Incorrect
    B34​

    Step-by-step walkthrough

    Choose a solution method

    Method #1Approach 1

    Step 1: Set up the substitution

    Starting from the standard series eu=1+u+2!u2​+3!u3​+⋯, substitute u=2x to get the series for e2x.

    Step 2: Find the $x^3$ term

    The x3 term in e2x comes from the u3 term: 3!(2x)3​=68x3​=34x3​

    Step 3: Read off the coefficient

    The coefficient of x3 is 34​.

    Method #2Approach 2

    Step 1: Identify what determines the coefficient

    The coefficient of x3 in e2x is 3!f′′′(0)​, where f(x)=e2x. Alternatively, the x3 term is 3!(2x)3​.

    Step 2: Eliminate $\dfrac{1}{3}$

    This would correspond to ex evaluated at the x3 term: 3!1​=61​, not 31​. Either way, it doesn't account for the factor of 23=8 from the substitution u=2x.

    Step 3: Eliminate $\dfrac{8}{3}$

    This could arise from writing 3(2x)3​=38x3​, incorrectly using 3 instead of 3!=6 in the denominator. The correct denominator is 3!=6, giving 68​=34​.

    Step 4: Eliminate $\dfrac{2}{3}$

    This might arise from taking 3!2​⋅x3, using 21 rather than 23=8 in the numerator. The substitution u=2x means the u3 term contributes (2x)3=8x3.

    Step 5: Confirm $\dfrac{4}{3}$

    The correct coefficient is 68​=34​, from 3!(2x)3​=68x3​.

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